18-09-2012, 10:21 AM
Suppose a company has pre-ipo paid up capital of $x and it raised $y from ipo. post-ipo paid-up capital=$(x+y)
If the current mkt cap is a fraction of x, does this mean we are getting a bargain compared to pre-ipo investors and founders of the company?
Hope to hear your views, thanks.
If the current mkt cap is a fraction of x, does this mean we are getting a bargain compared to pre-ipo investors and founders of the company?
Hope to hear your views, thanks.